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Polity & Governance

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PYQs on Polity & Governance

24 PYQs from 2024
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Prelims 2024

24 questions
Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Philosophy and FrameworkConstitution Making and Constituent AssemblyEasy (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Constituent Assembly · Provisional President · Constitution making

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q61

Prelims 2024, question 61: Constitution Making and Constituent Assembly

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Philosophy and FrameworkConstitutional Amendment ProcedureEasy (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Article 368 · Constitutional amendment · Amending power

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q66

Prelims 2024, question 66: Constitutional Amendment Procedure

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessLegislative Process and Types of BillsMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Money Bill · Article 109 · Rajya Sabha
Related topics:
Budget and Financial Procedure

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q68

Prelims 2024, question 68: Legislative Process and Types of Bills

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below :

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional, Statutory and Regulatory InstitutionsMinistries, Departments, Boards and Executive AgenciesHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Pairs
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Military ranks · Army · Air Force · Navy

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q69

Prelims 2024, question 69: Ministries, Departments, Boards and Executive Agencies

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army — Airforce — Navy 1. Brigadier — Air Commodore — Commander 2. Major General — Air Vice Marshal — Vice Admiral 3. Major — Squadron Leader — Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel — Group Captain — Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional, Statutory and Regulatory InstitutionsStatutory and Non-Constitutional BodiesHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
North Eastern Council · NEC Act · Statutory membership
Related topics:
Inter-State Council, Zonal Councils and Inter-State Disputes

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q70

Prelims 2024, question 70: Statutory and Non-Constitutional Bodies

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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Polity & GovernanceElections and Political ProcessQualifications, Disqualifications, Delimitation and Office of ProfitMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Delimitation Commission · Electoral boundaries · December 2023

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q71

Prelims 2024, question 71: Qualifications, Disqualifications, Delimitation and Office of Profit

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Philosophy and FrameworkParts, Schedules, Articles and Constitutional TerminologyMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Eighth Schedule · 71st Amendment · Scheduled languages

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q72

Prelims 2024, question 72: Parts, Schedules, Articles and Constitutional Terminology

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Polity & GovernanceElections and Political ProcessPolitical Parties, Anti-Defection and Party RegulationHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Pairs
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Political organisations · Party founders · Post-independence leaders

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q73

Prelims 2024, question 73: Political Parties, Anti-Defection and Party Regulation

Consider the following pairs: Party — Its Leader 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched?

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Philosophy and FrameworkParts, Schedules, Articles and Constitutional TerminologyEasy (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Constitutional parts · Municipalities · Emergency provisions

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q74

Prelims 2024, question 74: Parts, Schedules, Articles and Constitutional Terminology

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

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Polity & GovernanceState Government and FederalismCentre-State Legislative RelationsMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Union List · State List · Seventh Schedule

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q75

Prelims 2024, question 75: Centre-State Legislative Relations

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

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Polity & GovernanceCitizenship, Rights and Directive PrinciplesFundamental RightsEasy (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Right to Privacy · Fundamental rights · Supreme Court

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q76

Prelims 2024, question 76: Fundamental Rights

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional, Statutory and Regulatory InstitutionsMinistries, Departments, Boards and Executive AgenciesMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Chief of Defence Staff · Department of Military Affairs · Tri-service roles

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q77

Prelims 2024, question 77: Ministries, Departments, Boards and Executive Agencies

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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Polity & GovernanceGovernance, Public Policy and Social JusticeWelfare Delivery, DBT and Public Service DeliveryMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Operation Sadbhavana · Army civic programmes · Remote communities

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q78

Prelims 2024, question 78: Welfare Delivery, DBT and Public Service Delivery

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessParliamentary Committees and OversightHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Lok Sabha Ethics Committee · Complaints · Sub judice matters
Related topics:
Privileges, Immunities and Legislative Ethics

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q80

Prelims 2024, question 80: Parliamentary Committees and Oversight

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below :

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Polity & GovernanceConstitutional Philosophy and FrameworkConstitutional Amendment ProcedureHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam · 106th Amendment · Women's reservation
Related topics:
Electoral System, RPA and Electoral Reforms
Current-affairs connection:
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (2023). Source

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q81

Prelims 2024, question 81: Constitutional Amendment Procedure

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceCitizenship, Rights and Directive PrinciplesConstitutional Remedies and WritsEasy (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Single choice
Skill:
Concept understanding
Tags:
Writ of Prohibition · High Courts · Judicial remedies

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q83

Prelims 2024, question 83: Constitutional Remedies and Writs

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :

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Polity & GovernanceGovernance, Public Policy and Social JusticeSocial Justice, Inclusion and Vulnerable GroupsMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Scheduled Tribes · Community recognition · Social inclusion
Related topics:
Parts, Schedules, Articles and Constitutional Terminology

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q84

Prelims 2024, question 84: Social Justice, Inclusion and Vulnerable Groups

Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessBudget and Financial ProcedureMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Union Budget · Annual Financial Statement · Demand for grants
Related topics:
Government Budget, Receipts and Expenditure

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q85

Prelims 2024, question 85: Budget and Financial Procedure

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements : 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessSpeaker and Presiding OfficersMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Lok Sabha Speaker · Removal resolution · Voting rights

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q93

Prelims 2024, question 93: Speaker and Presiding Officers

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessLegislative Process and Types of BillsMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Lapsing of bills · Lok Sabha dissolution · Joint sitting

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q94

Prelims 2024, question 94: Legislative Process and Types of Bills

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceParliament and Legislative ProcessSessions, Motions and Parliamentary ProcedureHard (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Prorogation · Dissolution · Council of Ministers

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q95

Prelims 2024, question 95: Sessions, Motions and Parliamentary Procedure

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceGovernance, Public Policy and Social JusticeE-Governance and Digital Public InfrastructureMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
DILRMP · Cadastral maps · Records of Rights

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q98

Prelims 2024, question 98: E-Governance and Digital Public Infrastructure

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements : 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceGovernance, Public Policy and Social JusticeWelfare Delivery, DBT and Public Service DeliveryMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan · Antenatal care · Welfare delivery

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q99

Prelims 2024, question 99: Welfare Delivery, DBT and Public Service Delivery

With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Polity & GovernanceGovernance, Public Policy and Social JusticeSocial Justice, Inclusion and Vulnerable GroupsMedium (editorial estimate)
Question details
Type:
Statement based
Skill:
Fact recall
Tags:
PM-SYM · Social security · Pension scheme

Classification and difficulty are editorial labels. Explanations are awaiting review.

2024 · Q100

Prelims 2024, question 100: Social Justice, Inclusion and Vulnerable Groups

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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